A 32-year-old female undergoes a routine cervical cancer screening. The cytology report returns as Low-Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (LSIL). The co-test for High-Risk Human Papillomavirus (hrHPV) is positive. What is the recommended next step in management according to the current ASCCP guidelines?
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Management of preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, placenta previa, and placental abruption. A 32-year-old female undergoes a routine cervical cancer
C. Initiate combination oral contraceptive pills to regulate her cycle D. Schedule an immediate total laparoscopic hysterectomy Question 3 What is the recommended next step in management
Risk factors (unopposed estrogen, Lynch syndrome), evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding, and surgical staging.